PRETERIST BIBLE COMMENTARY › Forums › Reply To: Does Luke 21:22 Prove that All End Time Prophecies were Fulfilled in A.D. 70?
<![CDATA[...because these are days of vengeance, so that all things which are written will be fulfilled. Luke 21:22 In my understanding, the "days of vengeance" is a reference, quite likely, to Leviticus 26:25, "...which will execute vengeance for the covenant..." (NASB). What this is referring to is the summary judgments if Israel breaks, and keeps on breaking the covenant of Moses. Leviticus 26:34, of course, is the statement that the removal of Israel from the land is for the missed Sabbaths (cf 2 Chr 36:21). These are the "sworn judgments" Daniel referred to, and are the fulfillment of the 70 years. The "days of vengeance", however, are part of the 4 times of 7-fold increase or additional punishment upon Israel if they continue to disobey. Another possibility in interpreting Daniel 9 is that the 490 years is merely the fulfillment of Leviticus 26:18, a additional 7-fold punishment--in the place of 70 years, they are "decreed" 70 7's of years of additional punishment. Instead of captivity in Babylon, they are returned to their land, but are in captivity "to" Babylon, nevertheless. So, we have it, the "days of vengeance" is part of the 3rd 7-fold installment for continued obedience (v18, 21, 24-25, and 27-28). The fourth can be seen in the fall of Jerusalem. And, of course, the ultimate outcome of the fulfillment of all four of these for continued and willful disobedience to be summed up well by what Daniel 12:7 conveys, "the power of the holy people utterly broken", or, the judgment against them of breaking and scattering with regards to their covenant. In summary then, if the "days of vengeance" are indeed a reference to Leviticus 26:25, then it is the days of "vengeance for the covenant". As such, the attempt to read into this verse, without additional textual support, to imply that it means the fulfillment of all prophecy everywhere is without support. Building that doctrine from this one point is simply out of place, as Jesus could quite have simply been referring to the most recent antecedent, either the "everything written" in the covenant, or "everything written" in regards to the executive summary of punishments for the covenant, that is, the "vengeance" and the general punishments described in Leviticus 26. Either way, attempting to pull "all things everywhere" is simply a fanciful way of attempting to prove the idea of total and complete scriptural fulfillment by making the Bible say more than it does in this case.]]>